CSE Preliminary Exam: Mock Test for Practice

General Studies Paper – I
Time Allowed: Two Hours
Maximum Marks: 200

1. Each question carries 2 marks.
2. For each question, there are four alternatives marked (a), (b), (c), and (d). Only one answer is correct unless otherwise stated.
3. The answers to the following MCQs can be viewed by clicking here. The answer key will open in a separate window.

SECTION A: HISTORY, ART & CULTURE

1. With reference to early urbanization in the Indian subcontinent, consider the following statements:

1. The emergence of planned settlements preceded the widespread use of metal tools.
2. Standardized weights indicate the existence of regulated economic exchanges.
3. Evidence of monumental palaces is a defining feature of all early urban centres.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

2. Consider the following features:

1. Rock-cut chaitya halls
2. Narrative relief sculptures
3. Structural temples with shikharas

Which of the above can be associated with developments that took place before the Gupta period?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

3. Which one of the following best explains the significance of inscriptions for ancient Indian history?

1. They exclusively record military victories.
2. They provide only religious information.
3. They offer contemporaneous evidence about administration, society and economy.
4. They are entirely free from exaggeration.

4. Consider the following statements regarding the Mahajanapada period:

1. Both monarchies and republics existed simultaneously.
2. Coinage was used in certain regions.
3. Agriculture had become irrelevant to state formation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

5. The spread of Buddhism in ancient India was facilitated by:

1. Trade routes connecting urban centres.
2. Patronage from rulers and merchants.
3. Use of local languages in communication.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

6. Which one of the following is the most plausible reason for the survival of many ancient literary traditions in India?

1. Complete absence of oral transmission
2. Continuous copying and preservation across generations
3. Exclusive state funding throughout history
4. Uniformity of language across all regions

7. With reference to the Gupta age, consider the following statements:

1. Gold coinage was an important feature.
2. Sanskrit received considerable royal patronage.
3. Long-distance trade disappeared completely.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

8. Consider the following pairs:

Literary Work	Language
1. Sangam poetry	Tamil
2. Tripitaka	Pali
3. Rajatarangini	Prakrit

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

9. The Bhakti movement contributed to Indian society by:

1. Emphasizing personal devotion.
2. Encouraging the use of regional languages.
3. Rejecting all forms of social hierarchy everywhere.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

10. Consider the following statements about medieval temple architecture:

1. Nagara style is generally associated with northern India.
2. Dravida style developed primarily in southern India.
3. Vesara style is often regarded as a synthesis of architectural traditions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

11. Which one of the following best distinguishes a historical source from a historical interpretation?

1. Sources are always unbiased; interpretations are always biased.
2. Sources are evidence; interpretations are explanations based on evidence.
3. Sources are modern; interpretations are ancient.
4. There is no distinction between the two.

12. Consider the following statements regarding the Delhi Sultanate:

1. It introduced new administrative practices.
2. Urban centres expanded in several regions.
3. Agricultural production ceased to be important.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

13. The concept of Sulh-i-Kul is most closely associated with:

1. Sher Shah
2. Akbar
3. Jahangir
4. Aurangzeb

14. Consider the following:

1. Mansabdari system
2. Jagir assignments
3. Revenue assessment

Which of the above were important elements of Mughal administration?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

15. Which of the following developments strengthened maritime trade in the Indian Ocean before European dominance?

1. Monsoon wind knowledge
2. Coastal trading settlements
3. Merchant guild networks

Select the correct answer:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

16. Consider the following statements regarding Indian painting traditions:

1. Miniature paintings were patronized by several regional courts.
2. Themes included religious as well as secular subjects.
3. All schools followed an identical style.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

17. Which one of the following best explains the importance of guilds in pre-modern India?

1. They functioned only as religious institutions.
2. They regulated aspects of production and trade.
3. They replaced all political authorities.
4. They existed only in rural areas.

18. Consider the following statements:

1. European trading companies initially came to India primarily for commerce.
2. Political control followed commercial involvement in many regions.
3. Competition among European powers existed in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

19. The Permanent Settlement introduced by the British primarily aimed at:

1. Establishing village self-government
2. Fixing land revenue demand with intermediaries
3. Promoting universal education
4. Abolishing private property in land

20. Consider the following factors in the growth of Indian nationalism:

1. Modern education
2. Expansion of print culture
3. Improved communication networks

Which of the above contributed to nationalist consciousness?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

21. With reference to the Revolt of 1857, consider the following statements:

1. It involved both military and civilian participation.
2. Its causes were only military in nature.
3. Different regions experienced the revolt in different ways.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

22. Which one of the following was a significant feature of Gandhian mass movements?

1. Dependence exclusively on armed struggle
2. Emphasis on non-violent political mobilization
3. Rejection of public participation
4. Limitation to urban elites

23. Consider the following pairs:

Personality	Associated Movement/Event
1. Dadabhai Naoroji	Drain Theory
2. Annie Besant	Home Rule Movement
3. Subhas Chandra Bose	Champaran Satyagraha

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

24. Which of the following factors influenced the framing of the Constitution of independent India?

1. Colonial administrative experience
2. National movement ideals
3. Comparative constitutional practices

Select the correct answer:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

25. Consider the following statements about Indian cultural traditions:

1. Cultural interaction has historically occurred across regions.
2. Artistic traditions have evolved through adaptation and innovation.
3. Cultural practices remained completely unchanged over time.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

SECTION B: GEOGRAPHY, ENVIRONMENT & ECOLOGY

26. Consider the following statements regarding the Earth's atmosphere:

1. The troposphere contains most of the atmospheric water vapour.
2. Temperature generally increases with altitude throughout the troposphere.
3. Most weather phenomena occur within the troposphere.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

27. Which one of the following best explains the formation of a rain-shadow region?

1. Subsiding air on the leeward side of a mountain barrier
2. High evaporation from oceans
3. Presence of dense forests
4. Seasonal migration of pressure belts

28. Consider the following:

1. Ocean currents
2. Latitude
3. Altitude

Which of the above significantly influence the climate of a place?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

29. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Landform	Dominant Process
(a) Delta	Wind deposition
(b) Moraine	Glacial deposition
(c) Sand dune	River erosion
(d) Canyon	Volcanic activity

30. Consider the following statements regarding monsoons in the Indian subcontinent:

1. Differential heating of land and sea contributes to monsoon circulation.
2. Topography influences the distribution of rainfall.
3. Monsoon rainfall is spatially uniform across India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

31. The term “aquifer” refers to:

1. A water purification technology
2. A rock or sediment layer capable of storing and transmitting groundwater
3. A type of wetland vegetation
4. A seasonal river channel

32. Consider the following statements:

1. Rivers can transport sediment.
2. River velocity influences erosion and deposition.
3. Meanders are found only in mountainous regions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

33. Which one of the following is most likely to increase soil erosion?

1. Contour farming
2. Shelter belts
3. Removal of vegetation cover
4. Terracing

34. Consider the following pairs:

Soil Type	Characteristic
1. Alluvial soil	Often fertile and renewed by river deposition
2. Black soil	High moisture-retention capacity
3. Laterite soil	Formed under intense leaching

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

35. Which of the following factors can contribute to desertification?

1. Overgrazing
2. Unsustainable irrigation practices
3. Deforestation

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

36. Consider the following statements regarding biodiversity:

1. Genetic diversity exists within a species.
2. Species diversity refers only to the number of species present.
3. Ecosystem diversity refers to variation among ecosystems.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

37. Which one of the following best describes an ecological niche?

1. The geographic area occupied by a species only
2. The functional role and position of a species in an ecosystem
3. The total biomass of a population
4. A protected area for wildlife

38. Consider the following statements:

1. Food chains represent pathways of energy transfer.
2. Energy available generally decreases at higher trophic levels.
3. Energy is recycled completely within ecosystems.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

39. Which one of the following is an example of an invasive alien species problem?

1. Introduction of a non-native species that disrupts native ecosystems
2. Seasonal migration of birds
3. Natural succession in forests
4. Pollination by insects

40. Consider the following:

1. National parks
2. Wildlife sanctuaries
3. Biosphere reserves

Which of the above are used as approaches for biodiversity conservation?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

41. Consider the following statements regarding climate change:

1. Greenhouse gases absorb and re-emit infrared radiation.
2. Carbon dioxide is the only greenhouse gas.
3. Human activities can influence atmospheric greenhouse gas concentrations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

42. Which one of the following is most directly associated with ocean acidification?

1. Increased atmospheric carbon dioxide dissolving in seawater
2. Ozone depletion in the stratosphere
3. Increased river sediment load
4. Seasonal ocean currents

43. Consider the following statements:

1. Wetlands can help regulate floods.
2. Wetlands provide habitat for many species.
3. Wetlands have no role in groundwater recharge.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

44. Which of the following practices are generally associated with sustainable resource use?

1. Rainwater harvesting
2. Agroforestry
3. Efficient irrigation techniques

Select the correct answer:

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

45. Consider the following pairs:

Biome	Dominant Feature
1. Tundra	Permafrost
2. Tropical rainforest	High biodiversity
3. Grassland	Absence of herbivores

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

46. Which one of the following best explains “ecological succession”?

1. Sudden extinction of all species in an ecosystem
2. Gradual change in community composition over time
3. Seasonal migration of organisms
4. Artificial breeding of species

47. Consider the following statements regarding renewable energy:

1. Solar energy availability varies geographically.
2. Wind energy potential is influenced by atmospheric conditions.
3. Renewable energy sources are completely free from environmental impacts.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

48. A watershed is best defined as:

1. An underground water reservoir only
2. An area from which water drains into a common outlet
3. A man-made irrigation canal
4. A coastal wetland ecosystem

49. Consider the following statements:

1. Mangroves can reduce the impact of coastal erosion.
2. Mangrove ecosystems support biodiversity.
3. Mangroves occur only in freshwater environments.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

50. Which of the following would most likely contribute to long-term environmental sustainability?

1. Conservation of biodiversity
2. Efficient use of natural resources
3. Reduction of ecosystem degradation

Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3